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epigastric pain

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on epigastric pain.

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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back. He has a history of alcohol use disorder and has been drinking heavily over the past week. On examination, he is febrile, tachycardic, and has abdominal tenderness. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum lipase and amylase levels. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Oral antibiotics
B. Intravenous fluid resuscitation
C. Nasogastric tube insertion
D. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
E. Immediate surgical consultation
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of epigastric pain that is worse at night and occasionally wakes her from sleep. She describes the pain as a burning sensation that improves with food intake but returns a few hours later. She denies any weight loss, vomiting, or changes in bowel habits. She has a history of intermittent use of ibuprofen for chronic back pain. On examination, she appears well-nourished, with normal vital signs and mild epigastric tenderness on palpation. A urea breath test is positive. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Prescribe an H2 receptor antagonist and advise dietary modifications
B. Recommend discontinuation of ibuprofen and start antacids
C. Advise lifestyle modifications and monitor symptoms
D. Refer for an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
E. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and test for Helicobacter pylori eradication
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of GERD. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. An axial CT image is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
B. Request a barium swallow study
C. Referral for surgical repair
D. Discharge with advice on lifestyle modification and follow-up
E. Initiate high-dose proton pump inhibitor therapy
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents with dysphagia and epigastric discomfort. A CT scan is performed, as shown. What is the MOST likely long-term complication?

A. Pneumonia
B. Barrett's esophagus
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Gastric volvulus
E. Esophageal stricture
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents with increasing postprandial fullness and epigastric discomfort. He reports occasional regurgitation of undigested food. A CT scan of the abdomen is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. H. pylori testing and eradication if positive
B. Surgical repair
C. Trial of proton pump inhibitors
D. Endoscopic surveillance
E. Dietary modification and lifestyle advice
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer intravenous antibiotics for possible aspiration pneumonia
B. Prescribe a short course of oral corticosteroids for COPD exacerbation
C. Order a barium swallow study to assess esophageal motility
D. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and schedule an upper endoscopy
E. Perform a diagnostic thoracentesis to rule out pleural effusion
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male presents with persistent vomiting and epigastric pain. He reports a history of NSAID use for chronic arthritis. An X-ray is performed. Which of the following is the MOST likely complication associated with this finding?

A. Aortic dissection
B. Gastric volvulus
C. Pneumonia
D. Pericarditis
E. Esophageal stricture
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Perform an upper endoscopy
B. Refer for surgical consultation for fundoplication
C. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and lifestyle modifications
D. Prescribe a prokinetic agent such as metoclopramide
E. Order a barium swallow study
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and takes no regular medications. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. An abdominal CT scan is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Discharge with reassurance and follow-up with a gastroenterologist in 6 months
B. Barium swallow study to further evaluate the anatomy
C. Surgical consultation for elective repair
D. Initiate a trial of proton pump inhibitors and lifestyle modifications
E. Esophageal manometry to assess esophageal motility
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of GERD managed with occasional antacids. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Surgical consultation for consideration of hiatal hernia repair
B. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and reassess in 4 weeks
C. Perform a diagnostic thoracentesis to rule out pleural effusion
D. Prescribe prokinetic agents to improve gastric emptying
E. Order an upper endoscopy to evaluate for esophagitis
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of his presentation?

A. Gastric malignancy
B. Esophageal dysmotility
C. Reduced lower esophageal sphincter tone
D. Aortic aneurysm
E. Pneumonia
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male with a history of reflux presents with epigastric pain and vomiting. An X-ray is performed (shown). What is the most likely complication?

A. Gastric volvulus
B. Pericarditis
C. Esophageal stricture
D. Aortic dissection
E. Pneumonia
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Hepatic metastases from a gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC).
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 65-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of unintentional weight loss and epigastric discomfort. Endoscopy revealed a gastric mass, and biopsy confirmed a mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma. Staging imaging is shown. His ECOG performance status is 1. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided images, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this patient?

A. Refer for surgical assessment for hepatic metastasectomy
B. Evaluate for potential liver transplantation
C. Plan for palliative external beam radiotherapy to the liver
D. Initiate systemic chemotherapy targeting the adenocarcinoma component
E. Commence treatment with a long-acting somatostatin analogue
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A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, which started suddenly 6 hours ago. He has a history of alcohol use disorder and has been consuming large amounts of alcohol daily for the past 10 years. On examination, he is diaphoretic and in distress, with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, heart rate of 120 bpm, and respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the epigastric region with guarding. Laboratory tests show elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Intravenous fluid resuscitation
B. Immediate surgical consultation
C. Administration of proton pump inhibitors
D. Initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics
E. Nasogastric tube insertion
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and takes aspirin daily. An X-ray is performed. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a H2 receptor antagonist
B. Order a barium swallow study
C. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and lifestyle modifications
D. Perform an upper endoscopy
E. Refer for surgical consultation for fundoplication
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, which started suddenly a few hours ago. He has a history of alcohol use disorder and has been drinking heavily over the past week. On examination, he is diaphoretic and in distress. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, and temperature of 37.8°C. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum lipase and amylase levels. An abdominal ultrasound shows no gallstones. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A. Nasogastric tube insertion
B. Intravenous fluid resuscitation
C. Initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics
D. Immediate surgical consultation
E. Oral rehydration therapy
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A 50-year-old man presents to the general practice with a 3-month history of persistent heartburn and regurgitation, especially after meals. He has tried over-the-counter antacids with minimal relief. He denies any weight loss, dysphagia, or gastrointestinal bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Prescribe H2 receptor antagonists
B. Refer to a gastroenterologist
C. Order an upper endoscopy
D. Advise dietary modifications only
E. Start a proton pump inhibitor
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents with increasing postprandial fullness and epigastric discomfort. A CT scan of the abdomen is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiate a trial of high-dose proton pump inhibitors
B. Esophageal manometry to assess esophageal motility
C. Surgical consultation for consideration of fundoplication
D. Reassurance and dietary modification
E. Barium swallow study to evaluate for esophageal strictures
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort over the past several months. He reports feeling full quickly after eating only small amounts. He denies any chest pain, fever, or recent weight loss. His past medical history includes hypertension and well-controlled type 2 diabetes. He takes lisinopril and metformin daily. On examination, his vital signs are stable: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 82 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. Abdominal examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness to palpation, but no rebound tenderness or guarding. The provided image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and monitor symptoms
B. Esophageal manometry
C. Endoscopic surveillance every 3 years
D. Surgical repair
E. Barium swallow study
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of epigastric pain that is worse at night and occasionally wakes her from sleep. She describes the pain as a burning sensation that improves with food intake but worsens a few hours after eating. She denies any weight loss, vomiting, or changes in bowel habits. She has a history of intermittent use of ibuprofen for chronic back pain. On examination, she appears well-nourished, with normal vital signs and mild epigastric tenderness on palpation. A urea breath test is positive. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Start a proton pump inhibitor and schedule a follow-up in 4 weeks
B. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and eradicate Helicobacter pylori with a combination antibiotic therapy
C. Prescribe a histamine-2 receptor antagonist and advise discontinuation of ibuprofen
D. Refer for an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy to confirm the diagnosis
E. Recommend dietary modifications and prescribe antacids as needed
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